grammar - Is it wrong for a then clause to follow a since clause?


Sorry if the terms are not right. Is it correct to say


"Since burgers are edible, then burgers can be eaten." ?


Should it not instead be "If burgers are edible, then burgers can be eaten." or "Since burgers are edible, burgers can be eaten." ?



Answer



Sure it's correct. Since/Then is functionally equivalent to If/Then.


An accepted meaning of "since" is "because" or "inasmuch as". If I can say "because burgers are edible, then burgers can be eaten," then I can say "since burgers are edible..."


"Since burgers are edible, burgers can be eaten." is simply a case of omitting "then", much like a contraction omits one or more letters in a word.


ETA:


Quite apart from correctness is the meaning. "Because/Since" and "If" are not the same. "Since burgers are edible..." makes the assumption or states the fact of edibility. So does "Because burgers are edible..." On the other hand, "If burgers are edible..." presents edibility as a mere possibility.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

etymology - Origin of "s--t eating grin"

First floor vs ground floor, usage origin

usage - "there doesn't seem" vs. "there don't seem"

pronunciation - Where does the intrusive R come from in “warsh”?

Abbreviation of "Street"

etymology - Since when has "a hot minute" meant a long time?

meaning - What is synonyme of "scale"?