Pronunciation differences between "finite" and "infinite"


In my experience, "finite" is pronounced (IPA) ˈfaɪnaɪt while "infinite" is ˈɪnfɪnɪt.


In general, the prefix "in" negates an adjective, but does not change the pronunciation. Based on this, I would expect ˈɪnfaɪnaɪt.


Is there a reason for this "deviation from the norm"? Are there dialects/regions that actually say ˈɪnfaɪnaɪt (or ˈfɪnɪt, for that matter)?



Answer



I believe we pronounce infinite the way we do because a dactyl is simply easier to say, in most cases. It trips (quite literally) off the tongue. It seems we're forced into the spondee of finite, even though that is harder to say, because nothing else makes sense. But once that extra syllable has come to the rescue we can get lazy again.


Edit


After giving the matter more thought, I think we pronounce finite as a spondee because both syllables have the "long i" sound (aɪ). I can't think of a single instance of aɪ coming on an unstressed syllable. I think that's mainly true of all the "long" vowels as well, but I will not be surprised if someone can come up with an exception or three.


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