grammar - What is the difference between "He seemed to be angry." and "He seemed angry."?


I want to know the difference between the following sentences:



  1. He seemed to be angry.

  2. He seemed angry.


I heard that when I use "to be" in the text like in above sentence, "to be" means "subjective". When without "to be" means objective.


When somebody says "She seemed to be beautiful", It means she is beautiful to someone." When somebody says "She seemed beautiful?, It means that everybody thinks she is beautiful. Is that right?




Comments

Popular posts from this blog

commas - Does this sentence have too many subjunctives?

verbs - "Baby is creeping" vs. "baby is crawling" in AmE

time - English notation for hour, minutes and seconds

etymology - Origin of "s--t eating grin"

grammatical number - Use of lone apostrophe for plural?

etymology - Where does the phrase "doctored" originate?

single word requests - What do you call hypothetical inhabitants living on the Moon?