formality - learn how to [verb] vs. learn to [verb]



  1. "learn to [verb]"

  2. "learn how to [verb]"


Is [1] merely a less formal version of [2]? If not, does [1] communicate something subtly different? Consider the following:


In [2], the object of learning is explicitly "how to [verb]" (for instance, "I will learn how to speak French").


Is the object of learning in [1] "to [verb]" or is it something implicit and abstract that allows the subject "to [verb]"? For instance, in "I will learn to speak French", the object of learning would be the prerequisite elements for speaking French: "French phonemes, grammar, syntax, etc.".




Comments

Popular posts from this blog

verbs - "Baby is creeping" vs. "baby is crawling" in AmE

commas - Does this sentence have too many subjunctives?

grammatical number - Use of lone apostrophe for plural?

etymology - Where does the phrase "doctored" originate?

phrases - Somebody is gonna kiss the donkey

typography - When a dagger is used to indicate a note, must it come after an asterisk?

etymology - Origin of "s--t eating grin"