grammar - Why the use of objective form?


In the following sentences from Wren & Martin's High School English Grammar & Composition, the objective form is used. I could not think of the rule that governs this sort of usage.



"HER (not she), who had been the apple of his eye, he now began to regard with something like distrust. HIM (not he), who had always inspired in her a respect which almost overcame her affection, she now saw the object of open pleasantry."





Comments

Popular posts from this blog

verbs - "Baby is creeping" vs. "baby is crawling" in AmE

commas - Does this sentence have too many subjunctives?

time - English notation for hour, minutes and seconds

grammatical number - Use of lone apostrophe for plural?

etymology - Origin of "s--t eating grin"

etymology - Where does the phrase "doctored" originate?

word choice - Which is the correct spelling: “fairy” or “faerie”?