subjunctive mood - Can "I be" ever be considered correct?


I was just looking at the verb to be (here) and I saw the subjunctive form "I be". Other than pirates saying "I be looking for treasure" I couldn't think of a single usage of "I be". Not knowing what subjunctive meant I went and looked it up but now I'm left thinking that "I be" could never be used in a grammatically correct way.


If I understand correctly the subjunctive form is for an irrealis mood which implies that the speaker doesn't know if the action or situation has happened as they are speaking. Surely that makes any sentence starting "I be" a logical contradiction - the speaker must know whether the action has started as they are doing it? Perhaps that is the humour behind the sentence and I'm just the last one in the room to get in!



Answer



I think the point is that if you did need the subjunctive mood, "I be" would be what to use. In an archaic sentence like this one following, there are two uses of the subjunctive:



If someone slight me, I shall run him through, whoever he be.



It's possible to contrive a similar sentence for I:



He can see through any disguise. He will always find me, whoever I be.



This is irrealis, but not through uncertainty about whether it is happening or not — it's uncertainty about the exact circumstances of a situation. I know I shall be disguised, and I know I shall be discovered; any uncertainty is about who I am disguised as.


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