past perfect - Is "When I lived in Berlin, I had seen the movie three times" grammatical?


Today I read the following description of preterite perfect in The Cambridge Grammar of English Language.



The distinction between the present perfect and the simple preterite is neutralized elsewhere in the verbal system, so that when have carries any other inflection than the present tense the perfect may correspond to either a present perfect or a simple preterite. Compare, for example:


i(a) He has lost his key so he can't get in his room.


i(b) He had lost his key so he couldn't get in his room.


i(c) He seems to have lost his key so he can't get in his room.


ii(a) He lost his key while he was running home.


ii(b) He had lost his key while he was running home.


ii(c) He seems to have lost his key while he was running home,


In [i] the non-present perfects had lost and have lost correspond to present perfect has lost, while in [ii] they correspond to the simple preterite lost.



Then, can i(b) and ii(b) be rephrased as i(b') and ii(b') below respectively?



i(b') He has lost his key so he couldn't get in his room.


ii(b') He lost his key while he was running home.



And this is my main question. Is the following sentence grammatical?



(1) When I lived in Berlin, I had seen the movie three times.



I thought had seen should be replaced by saw to make it acceptable.




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