grammaticality - Divide two into four and Divide two by four


Why does "divide two into four" equal two, and "divide two by four" equal one half?


Correct if I am wrong, but this what I have learned recently.



Answer



OP's confusion arises because "divide 2 into 4" is an idiomatic usage meaning perform a division operation, using 2 as the divisor, and 4 as the dividend.



symbolically...
4/2 = 2


clearest verbal form...
divide 4 by 2, giving the answer 2


idiomatic alternative...
divide 2 into 4, giving the answer 2



It's not the same usage as dividing a pizza into 4 [pieces], where you'd probably get 1/4 (a quarter) of a pizza as your share!


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

commas - Does this sentence have too many subjunctives?

verbs - "Baby is creeping" vs. "baby is crawling" in AmE

time - English notation for hour, minutes and seconds

etymology - Origin of "s--t eating grin"

grammatical number - Use of lone apostrophe for plural?

etymology - Where does the phrase "doctored" originate?

single word requests - What do you call hypothetical inhabitants living on the Moon?