grammar - What evidence is there that 'to' belongs to any particular part of speech?


Reopen note:


There is a quite finite and modest amount of evidence in the literature about this issue, which members can record here as they see fit. Less than there is for example about what a noun is or what a verb is, or how to tell what the Subject of a sentence is. It's a simple question, that people need to be able to get answered on a site such as this. It is of continuing interest as more recent questions such as this attest to. The fact that people disagree about the outcome of the evidence does not mean that there is too much evidence to be documented. Quite the reverse. They disagree because there is relatively little evidence altogether. However, it is seriously interesting evidence.


The question


What part of speech is to as in:



  • I need to know.

  • To err is human, to forgive divine.

  • What am I to do?


This question is not really about the difference in meaning between the examples. It is a question about what grammatical or syntactic reasons we have to classify this item as a particular part of speech. If arguing that it is 'its own part of speech', I'd like to know what grammatical - but not historical - reasons you have for your claim.


Just to clarify, I'm not asking about what assignment any particular authority or publication gives it. I'm interested to know the reasons why. Your own personal insights are also very welcome.


If you're a grammar anorak - like me - then you may want a list of the contenders out there from other grammarians. In no particular order:



  • preposition

  • subordinator

  • non-finite auxiliary verb

  • modal verb

  • inflectional element


Can you help?




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