A grammar rule (Present perfect)


Is this rule correct?


when 'for' and 'since' are used in a sentence(in present perfect tense) to show duration of an action they imply that the action is still in progress. Without the 'for', the last sentence suggests that the person doesn't live in Paris anymore and that the action is complete.


I have lived in Paris for two weeks.


I have lived in Paris.



Answer



Context is king. I have lived in Paris for two weeks could mean that the speaker is no longer living there, but will not normally do so. I have lived in Paris, without further elaboration, will almost certainly mean that the speaker is now living elsewhere.


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

etymology - Origin of "s--t eating grin"

usage - "there doesn't seem" vs. "there don't seem"

First floor vs ground floor, usage origin

meaning - What is synonyme of "scale"?

etymology - Since when has "a hot minute" meant a long time?

meaning - "Instable" or "unstable"?

time - English notation for hour, minutes and seconds