verbs - Under what circumstances can the word "be" be used directly without any change?





When should I use the subjunctive mood?



2 examples first:


1.It is announced that the accounting class of the 3rd and 4th hours on the morning of this Wednesday be cancelled


2.It is expected that everybody and each household be on guard


Someone told me this kind of examples above appears in the textbook as strict sentences to be taught in the classroom, so is that right for the usage of be


Meantime I looked up the word be at thefreedictionary.com and found one piece of interpretation says that way:



Archaic Used with the past participle of certain intransitive verbs to form the perfect tense: "Where be those roses gone which sweetened so our eyes?" (Philip Sidney).



So is there any connection between the archaic usage & the examples above? BTW, how to understand the short phrase "the 3rd and 4th hours". Many thanks!




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