modal verbs - Is it appropriate to omit "to" after "ought"?


Is it appropriate to omit to after ought?



I ought to be disciplined for my insolence.



Vs.



I ought be disciplined for my insolence.



Is it okay to omit the to?



Answer



It's not typical.


The American Heritage Dictionary entry for ought has the following usage note:



Unlike other auxiliary verbs, ought usually takes to with its accompanying verb: We ought to go. Sometimes the accompanying verb is dropped if the meaning is clear: Should we begin soon? Yes, we ought to. In questions and negative sentences, especially those with contractions, to is also sometimes omitted: Oughtn't we be going soon? This omission of to, however, is not common in written English.



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